Fat Steve's Blatherings

Tuesday, November 15, 2005

Very Good Question

        From Eire 8 on Instapunk last year.  It notes that Congress didn't formally declare war, and "authorize and direct" the President to use military forces to defeat the enemy.  Instead, the Congressional Joint Resolutin said the President was authorized to use force, when he thought it necessary.  This raised a question about Congressional Democrats:
        Why did they cede their constitutional authority to such a man - a man they speak of as if they never regarded him as fit for the role of commander-in-chief?

        Yes, I'd like an answer to that one myself.

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THE HOUSE OF SAUD MUST BE DESTROYED — AND WILL BE!

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